Is PR negative less responsive to Arimidex?

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JuniperCat
JuniperCat Member Posts: 658

Hello! I just found out via my hospital's online patient portal that the Oncotype test shows that my tissue has the following ER score 10.7 (positive) and an PR score of 5.1 (negative). I had thought originally from the first pathology report from my first surgery in November that my tumor was both ER and PR positive, but the Oncotype shows it to be PR negative. Does anyone knows what this means? Is PR negative less responsive to Arimidex?

Thanks very much!!

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  • doxie
    doxie Member Posts: 1,455
    edited December 2015

    This is very confusing to many, but I'll try to help. The PR of 5.1 on your Oncotype test means that in the calculation for the score, this is a "negative" toward a lower score. It does not mean a negative relative to the percent you've likely received with your pathology report. It's not possible to have a negative PR %. A 0% is the lowest PR you could have.

  • BarredOwl
    BarredOwl Member Posts: 2,433
    edited December 2015

    Hi JuniperCat:

    I see that they are reporting ER and PR separately, and they note that it may differ from ER and PR status determined by other methodologies (at page 3):

    http://breast-cancer.oncotypedx.com/en-US/Professi...

    Be sure to add those questions to the list of things to discuss with your MO to ensure accurate and current advice.

    Meanwhile, the NCCN guidelines for Breast Cancer (Version 1.2016) indicate:

    "Patients with invasive breast cancers that are ER or PR positive should be considered for adjuvant endocrine therapy regardless of patient age, lymph node status, or whether adjuvant chemotherapy is to be administered."

    Thus, ER-positive status alone can justify endocrine therapy.

    In addition, to my knowledge, ER and PR status determinations have been historically made based on the immunohistochemical tests conducted during tissue pathology, and the studies that led to approval of Arimidex for "Adjuvant treatment of postmenopausal women with hormone receptor-positive early breast cancer" would have used those traditional methodologies by which you were/are considered ER+PR+.

    This 2012 paper is a little heavy going, but seems to suggest that immunohistochemical methods (traditional pathology) are more sensitive and preferred:

    http://www.nature.com/modpathol/journal/v25/n6/ful...

    "The additional reporting of qRT-PCR ER and PR results on oncotype report confuses clinicians and unnecessarily creates doubt about validated immunohistochemistry assays."

    Again, please be sure to discuss all your questions and concerns about PR status with your MO.

    BarredOwl

  • JuniperCat
    JuniperCat Member Posts: 658
    edited March 2016

    Dear Doxie and BarredOwl:

    Thank you so much for taking the time to respond to my post. I took another look at the report and it says:

    "These findings confirm the previous ER+/PR- (invasive component) HER2 negative findings by IHC/FISH on the prior diagnostic needle biopsies."

    So, I must have misinterpreted my original pathology report. I appreciate your help and input. I don't have a scientific leaning so your assistance is extremely helpful.

  • BarredOwl
    BarredOwl Member Posts: 2,433
    edited December 2015

    Hi JuniperCat:

    Do go back and check that prior report to see if you now understand it to be indicating PR negative. You may still want to discuss with your MO whether there are any implications (or not) of that statusfor your various treatment decisions.

    BarredOwl

  • ruthbru
    ruthbru Member Posts: 57,235
    edited December 2015

    I am PR negative and ER positive too. They don't really know what the impact of the PR being negative is. I think the 'stats' are slightly better if both ER and PR are positive, but the real important thing is that you are ER positive. (I did 5 years of Arimidex with no problems.)

  • JuniperCat
    JuniperCat Member Posts: 658
    edited March 2016

    Dear BarredOwl and ruthbru,

    Thank you for responding to my post. I will be seeing my BS and a new RO this coming week. I am hoping to avoid radiation, if possible. When is one considered "cured" of this? After five years or ten years

  • ruthbru
    ruthbru Member Posts: 57,235
    edited January 2016

    I am sad to say that you know, for sure, that you are cured when you drop dead of something else! Seriously though, the risk of recurrence drops the further out you get.....first 2 years being the highest risk, another big drop after 5 years. Why do you want to avoid radiation? The statistics for recurrence with a lumpectomy always include radiation. Your chance of a local recurrence will be MUCH higher without it. I didn't find radiation to be bad & would highly recommend it to give yourself the best shot to stay 'cured' side of the equation.

    *edited to say that I just went to the BCO home page & looked up radiation therapy. I will copy part of what they say, the bold type is my own:

    Radiation therapy — also called radiotherapy — is a highly targeted and highly effective way to destroy cancer cells in the breast that may stick around after surgery. Radiation can reduce the risk of breast cancer recurrence by about 70%. Despite what many people fear, radiation therapy is relatively easy to tolerate and its side effects are limited to the treated area.

  • BarredOwl
    BarredOwl Member Posts: 2,433
    edited January 2016

    Hi JuniperCat:

    I agree with Ruthbru. I am striving to die of something else hopefully when much older.

    As you can imagine, very long-term follow-up is challenging for conducting a clinical trial. Five-year survival rates are measurable within most study time-frames, which is why they are used, but 5-yrs is an arbitrary cut-off point for breast cancer. While there are some non-breast cancers which if you make it past 5 years, you are pretty unlikely to suffer a recurrence, breast cancer behaves a little differently and the risk of recurrence goes out farther (even 20+ years). Rather than use the word "cure" or "cancer free", which may overstate the case, many use the term "NED" (no evidence of disease).

    RuthBru is that 70% a 70% reduction of baseline risk, such that that the actual benefit achieved may be lower? If so, that personal baseline risk and the magnitude of reduction would be a point for discussion with the radiation oncologist.

    With tamoxifen, I know it can reduce risk about 45%. But if the baseline risk was say 10% in a particular case, the drug may achieve a 45% reduction, reducing risk by 4.5% down to 5.5 %.

    BarredOwl

  • ruthbru
    ruthbru Member Posts: 57,235
    edited January 2016

    I don't know Barred, I just quickly went over to the BCO Homepage and found that stat because I knew it was a big/big number. If someone, for whatever reason, doesn't want/can't have radiation, a mastectomy is recommended instead of a lumpectomy (although that does not always get a person out of radiation either) due to that fact. As you point out, everyone's situation is unique and individual decisions should be made with the input of one's own medical team.

  • BarredOwl
    BarredOwl Member Posts: 2,433
    edited January 2016

    Thanks Ruth. Even if the 70% is a relative risk (a point to confirm with the radiation oncologist), it is indeed a big downward modulation of one's personal risk. And I agree that the current NCCN guidelines include radiation if lumpectomy is chosen for IDC, Stage I, negative nodes:

    "Radiation therapy to whole breast with or without boost to tumor bed or consideration of partial breast irradiation (PBI) in selected patients. It is common for radiation therapy to follow chemotherapy when chemotherapy is indicated."

    BarredOwl

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